luckykaa: (Default)
[personal profile] luckykaa
I just don't get the theological arguments against it. 

Yes, I realise Jesus (allegedly) only had male disciples.  Did he actually give a reason for this?  Has anyone speculated on the reason for this?  Could it be perhaps because first century Israel was actually not modern progressive 21st century country?

Is that the reason?  Seems way too simplistic to be seriously considered. 
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